Wez
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Wez
ParticipantTM – It’s not my logic because, like you, I depend on historians to provide me with information that I base my interpretations on. My information is that England had a permanent standing army after the crushing of the counter revolution in 1688. Cromwell’s New Model Army was, likewise, a standing army. As for your petulant assertion that this thread ‘is a waste of time’ this has not been my experience and I can only conclude that if anyone dares to disagree with you on anything that, for you, it’s a waste of time. Rather infantile don’t you think?
Wez
ParticipantTM – I don’t think it helps not to recognize the difference between a ‘state’ and a ‘nation-state’. The latter acquires its legitimacy (ideologically speaking) from its population and their shared identity and not from an autocrat or God (religious leaders). We still hear the call for ‘independence’ as if it’s some kind of remedy for all capitalism’s ills. It is of interest that during the 30 years war most of the fighting was done by mercenaries and not by those who were loyal to a religion or country. Nation states with standing armies changed all that. Of course I see this all as ideological nonsense but the reason why the working class murder each other periodically for the interests of the bourgeoisie can, partly, be understood historically.
Wez
ParticipantTM – ‘Whatever an individual or community believed, the reality was only one central allegiance.’
Yes but that ‘central allegiance’ changed from one of fear and superstition to one of national pride and cultural/racial superiority. I think you underestimate the power of nationalism without which even capitalism would falter – that’s why it remains the greatest enemy of socialism.
Wez
ParticipantTM -Did the inhabitants of the peninsular think of themselves as ‘Spanish’ or were they still very regional (Castilian or Aragonese etc.). This is one of the distinctions historians make between Medieval states and the modern conception of a nation state. Although it has to be said that the whole conception of a ‘nation-state’ is problematic in terms of definition but obviously very successful for the bourgeoisie politically.
Wez
ParticipantTM – Ok we’ll have to agree to disagree about the Reformation playing a central role in the rise of nationalism and the nation state. Historians mention many contenders for the title of the first nation state but rarely, if ever, have I heard Spain mentioned in this context. What is your reasoning for this?
Wez
ParticipantAlthough the Saracens were quite shocked when they encountered the Franks for the first time during the early crusades. Their lack of hygiene and general ignorance of medicine together with a rather limited education and a almost maniacal need for violence was an embarrassment for many Muslims. Presumably this was because they had preserved the knowledge of Greek science, medicine and philosophy which much of Europe had lost?
Wez
ParticipantCDM – ‘What was the main purpose of the Renaissance? Wasn’t it a scientific, philosophical and artistic rebirth from the obscurity created by Feudalism?’
Historians have debated that ad nauseam but the rediscovery of ancient culture, much of which had been lost in western Europe, had a stimulating effect on the intelligentsia of the time. The fall of Constantinople meant that many scholars fled the city and shared what they knew with the Catholic west, especially Italy. I think Marx acknowledged that political/cultural evolution wasn’t necessarily a smooth passage (a fact that some philosophers mention in their critique of Marx’s work) but it does appear that much material culture was lost after the fall of the western Roman Empire for many centuries. Most historians don’t use the term ‘the dark ages’ anymore but it does seem appropriate to me – what do you guys think? You could make a case for the 20th century being a dark age for socialism because during all of the carnage the Bolsheviks appropriated the term and we still live with the consequences of the Marxian knowledge that was subsumed and subverted by these gangsters.Wez
ParticipantTM – Thanks. We know that merchant capitalism has been around for centuries but what makes the English revolution unique is that it allowed the evolution of Industrial Capitalism with wage labour and the accumulation of surplus value. Would you agree with that?
Wez
ParticipantSo no apology then? Only to be expected I suppose. Don’t you realize how you alienate so many in this forum by your behavior? As I’ve repeatedly stated that in terms of the ideology of the bourgeoisie the Reformation is interesting but that the underlying class conflict was inevitable whatever ideology was used.
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This reply was modified 5 months, 1 week ago by
Wez.
Wez
ParticipantTM – ‘As for France and the Wars of Religion, you seem to think that all the bourgeoisie were Huguenots. This would fit with your over-simplistic view of Catholic = feudal and Protestant = bourgeoisie.’
I really wish that you’d stop creating these straw men – when did I say or even intimate what you’re claiming here? I’m well aware of the complexities and changing alliances of the Reformation. If you don’t stop doing this, as my patience has its limits, I will have to stop my part in this debate – and that would be a shame since I’m really enjoying it..Wez
ParticipantTM – So you don’t believe that the long ‘wars of religion’ in France and the suppression of Protestantism were major factors handicapping the development of capitalism and bourgeois ideology? Is this not one of the reasons that the capitalist class turned to the enlightenment as an ideology that promoted their revolutionary cause? The capitalism that existed in many Catholic countries was merchant capitalism which only evolved into industrial capitalism and the procurement of surplus value in England. This was helped or, indeed, caused by the favorable legal and financial systems that came about after the English Revolution of the 1640s.
Wez
ParticipantTM – Jeez, don’t you ever lighten up? Seriously when was the last time you made a joke? Your efforts at rehabilitating the medieval remind me of the historian Michael Wood who attempted to do the same for the ‘Dark Ages’ in Britain. Do you know the series, I loved it as a young man: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZlK9gyL6RFk&list=PL2vJ5Cg-wlPx8YFlffdCfHSGS9yOt9egz
Wez
ParticipantTM – Where do you get all of your certainties from? You sound so dogmatic all of the time. History isn’t a science and nobody has a definitive description of human development, and probably never will, as new discoveries are being made all of the time. There are certain books that are relevant to certain debates and have to be discussed even if you disagree with them. You said yourself that Calvinism valued hard work and economic diligence and this is something Weber tried to explain in terms of the development of the Christian religion in Europe.
Wez
ParticipantTM – I’m surprised you’ve not come across this famous book by Max Weber: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Protestant_Ethic_and_the_Spirit_of_Capitalism
Wez
ParticipantThat still doesn’t explain why France had to wait until 1789 for their bourgeois revolution. England had completed its revolution 100 years earlier in 1688. You entirely reject Max Weber’s theories on this subject?
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